Oh, thanks! *embarrassed* I didn't make it; I just found it somewhere.
/Yes they exist and most arn't even men - they just think Gaston is better looking!/
*snorts* Yeah, that really helps their case. And even on that topic, I'd disagree with them. I know that a lot of people don't like the Beast in his original human form, but I do. And I still think that he's better-looking than Gaston. Heck, even when I was little, I didn't think that Gaston was that handsome. Maybe it's because brawny guys just aren't my type. *shrugs*
/I'd like to note some people didn't even notice Darcy was proud in Pride and Prejudice./
What did they think that the "pride" in the title referred to, or should I say, whom did they think that the pride in the title referred to? I know that some people take one or the other interpretation: that the title refers to Mr. Darcy's "pride" and Elizabeth's "prejudice" or that the title refers to Elizabeth's "pride" and Mr. Darcy's "prejudice." I've never seen anybody argue that both traits refer only to Elizabeth.
/There is this horrible dating book I've heard of that calls Darcy the perfect gentlemen and say that Elizabeth was wrong about him and that her character devlopment is realising she was wrong about him./
Uh, no, Elizabeth was wrong about him in terms of what she thought he did to Wickham and Jane, but she was absolutely right about his attitude. That was supposed to be the reason why Mr. Darcy changed his behavior for the better; it was because he realized that she was right.
The perfect gentleman? Did the writer of that book just miss the part where Mr. Darcy insulted Elizabeth's family in his first proposal? Where he practically said that it was degrading for him to love her? How did they miss that? Because he said it in the Queen's English, so that automatically makes it okay?
Yes, Elizabeth's character development was realizing that she was wrong about him. But *Fitzwilliam's* character development was realizing that *his* attitude was unacceptable. Did the writer of that book miss the part near the end where Mr. Darcy told Elizabeth that his behavior was "unpardonable?" What, did the author think that he was just being modest and self-deprecating? I'm beginning to think that the writer didn't read the book at all.
/Guess they only saw the damn movie... [shudders]/
Which one? The 1940 version with Laurence Olivier, the BBC miniseries, the Keira Knightley version, or the modernized version (which I've heard is awful)?
no subject
Oh, thanks! *embarrassed* I didn't make it; I just found it somewhere.
/Yes they exist and most arn't even men - they just think Gaston is better looking!/
*snorts* Yeah, that really helps their case. And even on that topic, I'd disagree with them. I know that a lot of people don't like the Beast in his original human form, but I do. And I still think that he's better-looking than Gaston. Heck, even when I was little, I didn't think that Gaston was that handsome. Maybe it's because brawny guys just aren't my type. *shrugs*
/I'd like to note some people didn't even notice Darcy was proud in Pride and Prejudice./
What did they think that the "pride" in the title referred to, or should I say, whom did they think that the pride in the title referred to? I know that some people take one or the other interpretation: that the title refers to Mr. Darcy's "pride" and Elizabeth's "prejudice" or that the title refers to Elizabeth's "pride" and Mr. Darcy's "prejudice." I've never seen anybody argue that both traits refer only to Elizabeth.
/There is this horrible dating book I've heard of that calls Darcy the perfect gentlemen and say that Elizabeth was wrong about him and that her character devlopment is realising she was wrong about him./
Uh, no, Elizabeth was wrong about him in terms of what she thought he did to Wickham and Jane, but she was absolutely right about his attitude. That was supposed to be the reason why Mr. Darcy changed his behavior for the better; it was because he realized that she was right.
The perfect gentleman? Did the writer of that book just miss the part where Mr. Darcy insulted Elizabeth's family in his first proposal? Where he practically said that it was degrading for him to love her? How did they miss that? Because he said it in the Queen's English, so that automatically makes it okay?
Yes, Elizabeth's character development was realizing that she was wrong about him. But *Fitzwilliam's* character development was realizing that *his* attitude was unacceptable. Did the writer of that book miss the part near the end where Mr. Darcy told Elizabeth that his behavior was "unpardonable?" What, did the author think that he was just being modest and self-deprecating? I'm beginning to think that the writer didn't read the book at all.
/Guess they only saw the damn movie... [shudders]/
Which one? The 1940 version with Laurence Olivier, the BBC miniseries, the Keira Knightley version, or the modernized version (which I've heard is awful)?